Why are there different
versions of the
Bible?
Unless you are referring to the Apocrypha ( a section in some Bibles
included alongside the New and Old Testaments) we do not actually have
different versions of the Bible, but rather, different
translations. This is nothing unique to the Bible. All ancient works
have numerous translations from numerous translators, because
scholars/linguists enjoy making their own translations and sometimes
they enjoy using different synonyms for words. (For example: A
word describing the size of a rock might translate
as large
or big) And in any translation, translated by a real team of scholars,
the differences are Minot. Occasionally we get some people who don't
really know Greek or Hebrew and attempt a translation anyway, (such as
the Jehovah's Witnesses did with their New World Translation), but for
the sake of future conversation, please note that when I refer to a
translation, I mean a real translation.
With that in mind, there is little difference between one Bible
translation and another. Even in those volumes which include the
Apocrypha, the Old and New Testaments are virtually the same as the OT
and NT in volumes that do not include the Apocrypha.
Now, there is some minor difference to note between The King James
Version and the modern versions, because when King James commissioned
his translators in 1611, some key New Testament manuscripts had not
been discovered yet, (Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrius). Another key
manuscript, the Codex Vaticanus, did exist at that time but it was the
property of Rome and the Catholic church certainly wasn't going to let
the Church of England use it.
Still, there are literally thousands of New Testament manuscripts and
even when England printed the 1611 publication, they created a
translation almost as accurate, (but not quite as accurate) as the
modern ones. When I say "not quite as accurate" I am referring to a
microscopic difference, very few verses and very short verses, nothing
that makes any real difference to the overall gospel message.
I realize that different Christians prefer different
versions. All too often, people are merely gravitating toward
the
version they were first exposed to. Since the translations are very
similar, this is fairly harmless. Still, the more we can
include
the latest manuscripts, the more accurate we will be. For
myself,
there are two translations that I prefer. I enjoy the New International
Version because it captures the spirit of the Greek language, sometimes
using some paraphrase to make its point. With certain Greek words or
phrases, many ideas would come up in the mind of a Greek and a
“one word for one word” translation does not always
capture
this. On the other hand, I enjoy The New American Standard Version,
because it is a more accurate word for word translation.
For example: Rom 8:9-10 in NIV says:
You, however, are controlled not by the sinful nature but by the
Spirit, if the Spirit of God lives in you. And if anyone does not have
the Spirit of Christ, he does not belong to Christ.
The same verse in NASV says:
However, you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the
Spirit of God dwells in you. But if anyone does not have the Spirit of
Christ, he does not belong to Him.
The word flesh did mean "sinful nature" depending upon its context. NIV
caught the spirit of the context and described it accurately,
but
still, the Greek text really does say flesh and not sinful
nature. Also, in Greek, being "in the Spirit" meant being
controlled by the Spirit but the word controlled was not actually there
in the manuscripts. Therefore, each translation is providing its own
special contribution. I want to know that the word controlled is not
really there but I also want to know that ancient Greeks would have
thought about control when reading the phrase "in the Spirit."
I hope this helps.
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From the
column, "What About It, Bob?"
By Bob Siegel
© 2002 by Bob Siegel
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